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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 00:26

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What is the Replika app, and how does it work?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Do many women shave their vaginas?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How will the 2026 delimitation affect India as a whole keeping the new count of 888 seats in mind (not the current 543)? I’m looking for genuine answers with facts and not rhetoric. I will only listen to answers and not reply to any of them.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.